From what I can tell, both of these forces are used to amplify an inputed force and in the case of, say a wrench, a longer wrench has both a higher mechanical advantage and a higher torque.
So what I don't understand is how torque is not only considered different from mechanical advantage, but also is in the perpendicular direction of the plane in which the force is applied.
Any and all responses are appreciated!
[link] [comments]
from newest submissions : Physics http://ift.tt/2vEMfLb
No comments :
Post a Comment